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David Hugh-Jones's avatar

Ok. So you mean: measured snp X1 correlates with unmeasured causal snp X2. But not perfectly. So there is some estimated error from the people who do or don’t have X1. But there is also some error from people who do/don’t have X2, and this won’t be picked up by the reported SEs? Or will it? Thinking about it, I don’t see why it wouldn’t be. But need to think more.

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gwern's avatar

> Correcting for correlation among the SNPs (“linkage disequilibrium”). I have no idea what to do about this, or if it matters. I’m using corrected standard errors from the summary statistics, blindly hoping this helps.

This is my first thought. The summary statistics wouldn't tell you the standard error from measurement error in the causal variant. So there's hidden inflation of error: you have simple sampling error from the rare variant being rare, yes, but you also have sampling error from all of the people who do/do not have the rare variant which is driving the signal. This would create a steadily increasing bias the rarer the variant is, I'd think?

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